MDS Exam Mock Test

1. All of the following muscle are composite muscle except
a. Pectineus
b. Rectus femoris
c. Adductir magnus
d. Biceps femoris

2. All of the following statement about Diploic veins are true except
a. Develop around 8th week of gestation
b. These have no valve
c. Present in cranial bones
d. Have a thin wall lined by a single layer of endothelium

3. Delta waves are seen in
a. Deep sleep
b. REM Sleep
c. Awake sleep
d. Stage 1 NREM Sleep


4. Increase in Lactate and pyruvate is seen in deficiency of
a. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine
c. Niacin
d. Vitamic c

5. Gram positive cocci which produce greenish colonies when cultured on blood agar, is bile insoluble and does not produce lesion when inoculated intra-peritonially in mice, is
a. Streptococcus mitis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Pneumococci
d. Staphylococci aureus

6. Which of the following drug is not used in anxiety
a. Risperidone
b. SSRI
c. Clonazepam
d. Buspirone

7. Which of the following location show collection of pus in quinsy
a. Peritonsillar space
b. Para-pharyngeal space
c. Retropharangeal space
d. Within the tonsil

8. Drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is
a. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Carbachol

9. Disturbance in calcification stage of tooth development results in
a. Transparent dentin
b. Inter-globular dentin
c. Atypical dentin
d. Osteodentin

10. Difference between epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity is
a. Stratum germinativum
b. Stratum corneum
c. Stratum spinosum
d. Stratum lucidum

11. Radiographically, inearly caries, one can mistake a radiolucent line below the DEJ for:
a. Hunter-schreger band
b. Lines of Retzius
c. Tomes granular layer
d. Mach Bands

12. If an edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the side effect would be
a. Intrusion of tooth
b. Extrusion of tooth
c. Rotation of tooth
d. Breakage of bracket

13. All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal gluco-corticoid except
a. Induction of thymic involution
b. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells
c. Functional thyroid
d. Functional hypo thalamopituitary axis.

14. An anti hormonal substance used to induce ovulation is
a. Mefiprestone
b. Clominphene citrate
c. Tamoxifen
d. Raloxifen

15. Raised LAP score is seen in
a. PNH
b. CML
c. Myelodysplastic syndrome
d. Growth factor therapy

16. Which of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine
a. Anti-mycobacterial
b. Antifungal
c. Anti-malarial
d. Anti-amoebic

17. Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in
a. Fluorosis
b. Achondroplasia
c. Renal osteodystrophy
d. Marfan’s syndrome

18. Reduced salivary flow irridation is dose dependent. At what dose the flow reaches the essentially zero ?
a. 4000 rads
b. 5000 rads
c. 6000 rads
d. 7000 rads

19. Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is
a. Dual energy X ray absorptiometry
b. Single energy X ray Absorptiometry
c. Ultrasound
d. Quantitative computed tomography

20. Which of the following milestone develops first
a. Mirror play
b. Crawling
c. Creeping
d. Pincer grasp

21. Best root end filling material to date is
a. MTA
b. ZOE
c. Amalgam
d. Ca(OH)2

22. Denker ‘s operation may result in injury to which nerve
a. Posterior superior alveolar nevre
b. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
c. Greater palatine nerve
d. Naso palatine nerve

23. Consistency of sub gingival calculus is best described as
a. Clay like
b. Flint like
c. Brick like
d. Soft

24. BANA test measure activity for
a. Calculus
b. Cathepsin
c. Elastase
d. Trypsin like enzyme

25. Chlorine demand is measured by
a. Horrock’s apparatus
b. Chlorimeter
c. Double pot
d. Berkfeld filter

26. Phosphorylase b is maintaind in an inactivated state by
a. ATP
b. Camp
c. Calcium
d. Insulin

27. Most common genital lesion in HIV patient is
a. Chalmydia
b. Herpes
c. Syphilis
d. Candida

28. Intermediate host for hyatid diseases
a. Man
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Foxes

29. Maltess cross seen on polarizing microscopic
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Penicillium marneffi
c. Blastomyces
d. Candida albicans

30. Most common cyst of the spleen are
a. Hydatid cyst
b. Dermatoid cyst
c. Pseudocyst
d. Lymphangioma

31. Lost odontoblast is replaced from mesenchymal cell within
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 7 days
d. 45 days

32. Munsell’s system is used to
a. Define and measure color qualitatively
b. Evaluate brittleness of different alloys
c. Measure physical properties of gold alloys
d. Define and measure color quantitavely

33. Hard tissue of the teeth develop from
a. Endoderm
b. Endoderm and ectoderm
c. Mesoderm and endoderm
d. Ectoderm and mesoderm

34. Multiple retained deciduous teeth are seen in
a. Cleidocranial dysostoses
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Amelogenesis imperfecta
d. Craniofacial dysostoses

35. Phlegmon is
a. STD
b. Type of cellulitis
c. Type of osteomyelitis
d. Veneral diseases

36. If rate of loading is decrease, the mechanical properties of the material,
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Constant
d. Cannot be predict

37. For the curing of composite resin, single wavelength is produced by
a. LED Lamps
b. QTH Lamps
c. PAC Lamps
d. Argon Laser Lamps

38. Synthesis of myelin sheath in brain is done by
a. Oligodendrocyte
b. Astrocytes
c. Ependymal cells
d. Microglia

39. Secretion of which of the following hormone does not increase at night
a. GH
b. ACTH
c. Melatonis
d. Insulin

40. Which of the following toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis
a. Cholera toxin
b. Shiga toxin
c. Pertusis toxin
d. LT of enterotoxigenic E-coli

41. Common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is
a. Seizure
b. Anxiety
c. Hypotension
d. Loose stools

42. A patient with head injury which is more important to note first
a. Papillary light reflex
b. Papillary size
c. Corneal reflex
d. Ability to open aye

43. Which type of anaemia is found in Alber –Schonberg diseases
a. Hemolytic anaemia
b. Iron deficiency anaemia
c. Pernicious anaemia
d. Myelopthisic anaemia

44. Dilapidated brick wall effect is a classic histologic feature of
a. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
b. Familial benign pemphigus
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Porokeratosis of Mibelli

45. In which stage of embryo failure does differentiation of maxillary mesoderm result in Treacher Collins syndrome
a. Embryo length 32 mm
b. Embryo length 25 mm
c. Embryo length 50 mm
d. Embryo length 62 mm

46. Edge enhancement is seen in
a. Scintigraphy
b. Sialography
c. Cephalometrics
d. Xeroradiography

47. Fracture of zygoma is best seen in
a. Submentovertex view
b. Occipitomental view 30 degree
c. PA View
d. Panoramic view

48. Which of the following most likely applies to
a. The direction of the crack usually extend mesiodistally
b. The direction of the crack usually extend faciolingually
c. Radiographic exam is the best way to detect
d. Both option 2 and 3 are correct

49. Poswillow’s hook is used in
a. Elevation of zygomatic bone
b. Elevation of skin flap
c. Elevation of mandibular condyle
d. Elevation of eyelid

50. The spherical gliding principal is a feature of
a. Mini plates
b. Luhr plating
c. ASIF plating
d. Lag Screw

51. Which is the nucleus of masseteric reflex ?
a. Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
b. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
c. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
d. Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve

52. The parvocellular pathway from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signal for the detection of
a. Movement, depth and flicker
b. Color vision, shape and fine detail
c. Temporal frequency
d. Luminated contrast

53. SA Node act as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that is
a. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously
b. Has rich sympathetic innervations
c. Has poor cholinergic innervations
d. Generate impulses at the highest rate

54. Serum creatinine can be most accurately measured by
a. Kinematic jaffe technique
b. Jaffe method
c. Enzyme immunoassay
d. Plasma gel filtration

55. All of the following can be used to detect chromosomal mutation except
a. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
b. Protein gradient electrophoresis
c. Aragose gel electrophoresis
d. Pulse field electrophoresis

56. The Ligand-receptor complex dissociation in the endosome because
a. Of its large size
b. The vesicle losses its clathrin cost
c. Of the acidic ph of the vessicle
d. Of the basic ph of vessicle

57. All of the following are associated with Coombs positive hemolytic anaemia except
a. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
b. Sjogren syndrome
c. SLE
d. PAN

58. Highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus accur if the mother is infected during
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. At the time of implantation

59. Which of the following is not the neuro transmitter
a. Taenia solium
b. Acanthoamoeba
c. Naegleria
d. Trichinella spiralis

60. Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome is
a. Proton pump inhibitor
b. Somatostatin analogues
c. Streptozocin
d. Sucralfate

61. Smoking is generally not associated was a risk factor with
a. Small cell carcinoma
b. Respiratory bronchiolitis
c. Emphysema
d. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia

62. One of the following is not true about gypsum bonded investment
a. Used for gold alloys
b. 50-65% gypsum change to form alpha hemihydrate
c. Heating range is 500-700 degree celsius
d. Heating of investment above 700 degree celsius cause formation of SO2 from calcium sulfate

63. Axonal regenration does not occur in CNS due to
a. Inability of Schwann cells to regenerate
b. Sprouting after injury is minimal in CNS
c. Schwann cells stop releasing growth factors
d. Secretion of inhibitory factors by glial cells

64. Amino acid which serve as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is
a. Alanine
b. Methionine
c. Arginine
d. Glutamine

65. Mono phase elastomeric impression materials are based on
a. Putty
b. Heavy body
c. Regular body
d. Light body

66. Stratum granulosum is not present in
a. Hyperorthokeratosis
b. Hyperparakeratosis
c. Sulcular epithelium
d. Specialized mucosa at dorsum of the tongue

67. Which of the following has no tendency to metastasis
a. Malignant melanoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Leukoplakia
d. Basal cell carcinoma

68. Four year old child is aggressive in his behaviour in dental office is usually manifesting a basic
a. Fear reaction
b. Reaction to rejection
c. Spoiled nature
d. Reaction to un differentiation

69. Which of the following material has highest linear coefficient of expansion
a. Amalgam
b. Direct gold
c. Tooth structure
d. Composite resin

70. Ultrasonic scaler tip used for efficient removal of core build up material is
a. CPR1
b. CPR2
c. CPR 6-8
d. CPR 10

71. Reverse steal phenomenon causing cerebral ischemia is shown by which anaesthetic agent
a. Isoflurane
b. Opoid
c. Benzodiazepine
d. Barbiturate

72. Which of the following anaesthetic agents cause a rise in intracranial pressure
a. Sevoflurane
b. Thiopentone sodium
c. Lignocaine
d. Propofol

73. The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of the tooth in which of the following
a. Impaction
b. Gingivitis
c. Occlusal wear
d. Gingival recession

74. The mean DMFT values for 12 year old school children is 5/2. 68 % of the population has DMFT values between 2 and 3. The standard deviation for the population is
a. .5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

75. KAP Studies in India were first used to study
a. HIV
b. Malaria
c. Chi square test
d. Fisher’s test

76. Which of the following statements regarding live vaccine is false ?
a. Two live vaccines can not be administered simultaneously
b. Booster doses are not required when live vaccine are administered
c. Single dose gives lifelong immunity
d. Live vaccine contains both major and minor antigen.

77. Dharmendra’s index and Jopling’s classification deals with
a. TB
b. Leprosy
c. Syphilis
d. Polio

78. Tests for heavy metals are all except
a. Harrison and Gilory’s test
b. Nautron activation analysis
c. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
d. Paraffin test

79. Best method for caries reduction is
a. Elimination of sugar from diet
b. Decrease frequency of intake of cariogenic foodstuff
c. Rinse mouth after each meal
d. Substitute sucrose by alcohol based sugar

80. In which condition Papilla preservation flap is indicated
a. Infrabony defects
b. One walled defects
c. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior teeth
d. Crater types of bone defect

81. Which of the following haematological disorder is most commonly associated with the periodontal diseases
a. AIDS
b. Hypophosphataemia
c. Wegener’s granulamatosis
d. Histiocytosis X

82. During the tooth extraction a known cardiac patient experiences pain. This is most likely to be due to
a. Allergy to the anaesthetic agent
b. The stimulant of pain and anticipation
c. Adrenaline in LA
d. The upright position in chair

83. An excess of which of the following hormone may be associated with sensitivity to epinephrine
a. Testosterone
b. Parathyroid
c. Insulin
d. Thyroid

84. Train of four fade is characteristic feature of
a. Depolarizing block
b. Non depolarizing block
c. Both
d. Malignant hyperthermia

85. The gagging reflex indicates
a. Making and breaking contact of posterior palatal seal
b. Under extended upper denture
c. Too deep posterior palatal seal
d. Under extended distolingual flange of lower denture

86. A correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates
a. Vacuum in posterior part of palate
b. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
c. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
d. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

87. At which stage is endodontic treatment considered complete
a. When a temporary restoration is placed and rubber dam is removed
b. When canal are sealed off and plugged
c. When the coronal restoration is completed
d. When the patient is asymptomatic

88. Post space can be prepared by use of
a. Peeso remaer
b. Small tapered fissure bur
c. Gates glidden drill
d. Barbed broach

89. All the appliances are fixed functional appliances except
a. Churro jumper
b. Mandibular protraction appliance
c. Pendulum appliance
d. Herbst appliance

90. DNA recombination technique is possible due to
a. Restricted endo nuclease
b. Cosmid
c. Polymerase chain reaction
d. Exo nuclease

91. The major function of major intrinsic protein 26 (MIP 26) is
a. Glucose transport in lens
b. Transport of water in lens
c. Diffusion barrier
d. Capsule of lens

92. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively
a. Propanolol/metoprolol
b. Verapamil
c. Esmolol
d. Procainamide

93. Which of the following anti glaucoma medication can cause drowsiness ?
a. Latanoprost
b. Timolol
c. Brimonidine
d. Dorzolamide

94. Most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present times is
a. Trans cranial
b. Trans ethmoidal
c. Trans sphenodial
d. Trans callosal

95. Most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is
a. Cementum apposition
b. Transparency of root
c. Attrition
d. Root resorption

96. The tactile threshold of natural teeth during axial loading is
a. .001-.01 N
b. .01-.10 N
c. .10 - .5 N
d. 1-2 N

97. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in
a. Lichen planus
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea unguium
d. Pemphigus vulgaris

98. For a bacterium to be seriously considered in etiology of dental caries. It must
a. Exist regularly in plaque
b. Produce extracellular amylopectins
c. Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals
d. Produce intracellular dextrans

99. All of the following is true about the dark room safe lightning, except
a. Use of high intensity and short wave length
b. Safe lights are mounted in work area on the wall behind the processing tank.
c. GBX-2 filter is recommended as a safe light
d. The safe light should be mounted at least 4 feet above the processing tank

100. Relative to heterogeneous population, the incidence of malocclusion in a homogenous population is generally
a. Lower
b. Slightly higher
c. Significantly higher
d. About the same

Answer Key

1. B [BDC II- 4th edition-64 or Gray-2nd – 562-563]
2. A [Grays 484]
3. A [Ganong 23rd 234-235 or Guyton 11th 742-743]
4. B [Harper 28th 468-474]
5. A [Ananthanarayan 8th 206,261]
6. A [KDT 6th 429.449]
7. A [Dhingra 4th 245]
8. A [KDT 6th 98]
9. B [Vincent Provenza 2nd 277-278]
10. A
11. C [Shafer 5th 928 or Burkit 11th 457]
12. C [Proffit 4th 420-421 or Bhalaji 3rd 321,199]
13 C [Ganong 23rd 350,597,598]
14 B [Shaws 13th 215,304 or Dutta 4th 229 or KDT 6th 303,304]
15 D [Winterobe’s 12th 15]
16 C [KDT 6TH 795 796]
17 C [Apley 8th 124 or Shafer 5th 964]
18 C [White & Pharoah 6th 23,24]
19 A [ Grainger 4th 186]
20 A [Ghai 6th 44]
21 A [Nisha Garg 1st 129]
22 B [Balaji 335 336]
23 B [Carranza 8th 150]
24 D [Carranza 10th 591]
25 A [Park 19th 577]
26 D [Harper 27th 161-163]
27 B
28 A [Harrison 17th 1338]
29 A [Ananthnarayan 8th 610-611]
30 A [Schwartz 9th 1255]
31 A [Orbans 11th 124 or Sturdevant 5th 26]
32 D [Craig’s 12th 30,31 or Phillips 11th 48-50]
33 D [Vincent Provenza 2nd 265, 243, 174]
34 A [Shafer 5th 83]
35 B [Shafer 5th 697]
36 B [Sturdevant 5th 146]
37 D [Phillips 11th 411-412]
38 A [BDC 5TH Vol III 309 or Ganong 23rd 82]
39 D [Ganongs 23rd 352, 379, 385]
40 B [Ananthnarayanan 8th 285 or Harrison 17th 963]
41 D [KDT 6TH 442]
42 D [Fonseca nd Walker 2nd 775]
43 D [Grainger 518 519 or Dhingra 4th 296-298]
44 B [Shafer 5th 1132]
45 C [Shafer 5th 986 987]
46 D [Karjodkar 2nd 329]
47 B [White nd Pharoah 6th 197]
48 A [Cohen 9th 21 23 24]
49 A [Rowe and William Vol I 479]
50 C [N. Malik 345 or Peterson 2nd Vol 1 371 381]

51 C [Neuroanatomy BRS 4TH 155, Clinical Neuroanatomy 25th 113]
52 B [Ganong 23rd 194]
53 D [Ganong 23rd 490]
54 C [J.Clin Chem 2006 52]
55 B [Tietz Chemistry 5th 200-206]
56 C [Lippincott 3rd 230, Chatterjea Shinde 6th 19]
57 A [API 8TH 810 or Haffman 4th 693]
58 C [Dutta 6th 292 or Ananthnarayan 8th 542]
59 D [Arora 2nd 407-408, 382 or Harrison 17th 1316, 1337, 1279]
60 A [KDT 6TH 631]
61 D [Harrison 17th 1648]
62 B [Phillips 11th 296]
63 D [Guyton 11th 725 or Grays 37th 895]
64 A [Lippincott 3rd 250]
65 C [ Phillips 11th 215-216]
66 C [ Orbans 11th 210, 216 or Tencates 7th 327]
67 D [Shafer 5th 143]
68 A [NBDE]
69 D [Sturdevant 5th 210]
70 B
71 D [Anaesthesia and Intensive Care]
72 A [Aitkin Head 4th 1591 or Morgan 3rd 138,558]
73 D [Carranza 10th 64]
74 A [Park 19th 701, 702]
75 C [Rao 145]

76A [Park 19th 97]
77 B [Park 19th 269]
78 D [Reddy 16th 187]
79 D [Harris Christen 3rd 89]
80 C [Carrazna 10th 927,945]
81 D [Carranza 10th 527]
82 B [Monheims 7th 174, 247]
83 D [Monheims 7th 181]
84 B [Morgan 4th 152, 209]
85 A [Boucher 9th 503]
86 C [Wrinkler 2nd 108]
87 C [Grossman 12th 439-444]
88 A [Grossman 12th 232 233]
89 C [Bhalaji 3rd 199,196]
90 A [Harper 28th 388]
91 B
92 A [Davidson 740]
93 C [Parson 19th 164]
94 C [Schwartz 8th 1636]
95 B [Reddy 34th 57]
96 B
97 A [Shafer 5th 1104]
98 A
99 A [W & P 6TH 69]

100 A [Proffit 4th 142]

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